PMK EE E6 Career Information Test Questions and Answers

1. What specific advancement topics are discussed at the Career Development Board?

2. An E4 is allowed to remain on active duty for what maximum number of years?

3. To apply for the Chief Warrant Officer Program, the applicant must meet which of the following requirements?

4. In order for a Sailor to extend at his current command, he must have a final recommendation from which of the following individuals?

5. The separation authority for education separation requests within 90 days of EAOS is what authority?

6. Each "A" school graduating class is granted what percentage of accelerated advancement?

7. A commanding Officer can authorize the EP evaluation time-in-rate waiver for what maximum number of Navy Wide Advancement Exam cycles?:

8. The sole authority for the advancement of personnel to pay grade E7 through E9 resides with what individual?

9. What affiliations are discussed in a Career Development Board?

10. Specific details on the new PACT designation process can be found in which NAVADMIN?

11. When submitting a statement to the record about performance evalua- tion, what items can be discussed?

12. Which of the following evaluations are utilized to compute PMA?

13. Enlisted selection boards are convened by what authority?

14. Which of the following personnel is eligible to participate in the Navy's LDO program?

15. The separation authority for all education requests more than 90 days is what individual?

16. The discharge category attributed to a disability or injury incurred in the line of duty is what type?

17. On a sailor's performance evaluation, a 5.0 in any performance trait area indicates that he/she is performing at what paygrade?

18. Sailors reduced in rank from E4 to E3 by NJP, for minor offenses of Article

15 of the UCMJ, are eligible for reinstatement after what minimum number of months?

19. Late or early Navy Wide Advancement Exams will be considered valid for which of the below reasons?

20. To be eligible for the limited Duty Officer Program, and individual may not have more than what maximum number of years of active duty?

21. A Petty officer First Class with nine years of active Navy service and who is Chief Petty officer selection board eligible, qualifies for which of the following officer programs?

22. The "burden of proof" to request correction to OMPF reside with which entity?

23. What specific personal education opportunities are discussed at the Career Development Board?

24. A Selective Reenlisment Bonus (SRB) is what type of pay?

25. What career development board topics cover the Thrift Saving Program and investments?: 

26. When a member on sea duty requests an extension, and it is NOT feasible due to manning excess, the detailer has what other option?

27. The Navy Enlisted occupational Classification System consists of what major subsystems?

28. What page of the member's service record contains information regard- ing an unauthorized absence?

29. To ensure their availability for worldwide assignment, single-parent Sailors are required to keep current what document?

30. Special evaluations are required to contain which of the following information in the opening sentence of the comments section?

31. With regard to evaluations, which of the following factors identifies an adverse matter?

32. The official record copy of a performance evaluation should be sent to what command?

33. All of the following types of publication can be listed on bibliographies for advancement-in-rate exams, EXCEPT which one?

34. Which of the following, if any, ASVAB score criteria must be entered into the C-WAY database?

35. When you sit on a Career Development Board, which of the following items should NOT be discussed?

36. The Commanding Officer has the authority to grant and extension of a letter of Intent for what prescribed number of days?

37. When a Sailor accepts a split tour, he/she must complete what total number of months?

38. A member may be separated from the entry level performance and conduct under what circumstance?

39. A member is eligible for a General Discharge if, during enlistment, the member's final evaluation is below what trait average?: 

40. Ribbons that Sailors are authorized to wear on their uniform are docu- mented on what service record form?: 

41. A member may submit a statement to the record concerning an EVAL

within what minimum amount of time after the report's ending date?: 

42. Regarding performance evaluations, when a Sailor receives a 1.0 in any individual performance trait grade, what eligibility should he lose?: 

43. For E6 and below personnel, what total number of performance evalua- tion report types are available?: