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Pharmacology Exam 1 Study Questions

Pharmacology Exam 1 Study Questions

Pharmacology Exam 1 Study Questions

04 November 2022

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During the implementation phase of the nursing process for medication administration, which procedure is considered essential?
a. Monitor the patient's response to the drug therapy
b. Following the five rights of medication administration
c. Establishing measurable and realistic outcomes
d. Use NANDA nursing dagnoses to plan care delivery
b. Following the five rights of medication administration
The nurse would recognize which of these as the five rights of medication administration?
a. Right patient, right teaching, right form of drug, right transcription, right response
b. Right room, right time, right storage, right chart, right signature
c. Right drug, right time, right patient, right dose, right route
d. Right drawer, right documentation, right dosage calculation, right drug preparation, right pharmacy
c. right drug, right time, right patient, right dose, right route
The nurse is reviewing a prescription for a medication that a patient is to receive, which component is recognized as being required as a part of the prescription?
a. The prescriber signature
b. The patient's diagnosis
c. The patient's age
d. The patient's weight
a. The prescriber signature
How would the nurse best describe the half life of a drug?
a. It is the time it takes for one half of the original available drug to be removed.
b. It is the time it takes for the drug to reach half way to the peak level.
c. It is the time it would take for a 50 mg tablet to be at 25 mgs remaining.
d. It is the time it takes for the drug to be eliminated and non-effective.
a. It is the time it takes for one half of the original available drug to be removed
The nurse is drawing blood to evaluate the therapeutic levels of a drug dose. Which level indicates that maximum therapeutic response of the drug is achieved?
A. Onset level.
B. Trough level.
C. Random level.
D. Peak Level.
d. Peak level
The nurse is preparing for an acute medication intervention, which route is understood to provide the most rapid delivery in to the circulation of blood?
Select one:
A. The parenteral route.
B. The topical route.
C. The enteral route.
D. Oral liquids.
a. The parenteral route
The nurse is describing the generic name of a drug to a patient. Which statement best represents the meaning of the generic name?
Select one:
A. This is the proprietary name of the drug given by the manufacturer that is trademarked.
B. This is the common name by which most everyone refers to the drug.
C. This is the name given to the drug based on the chemical structure.
D. This is a non-proprietary name given by the United States Adopted Name Council.
D. This is a non-proprietary name given by the United States Adopted Name Council.
A pregnant woman is prescribed a medication, while teaching the patient, the nurse explains that which pregnancy category drug would be the safest?
Select one:
A. "B"
B. "D"
C. "X"
D. "A"
D. "A"
Which feature of a pediatric patient would the nurse recognize as most affecting the distribution of a fat soluble drug?
Select one:
A. The slower gastric emptying.
B. The lower serum protein levels.
C. The gastric acid level.
D. The total body water (TBW).
D. The total body water (TBW).
Which factor is most involved in the elderly as a reason for polypharmacy?
Select one:
A. Decreased gastric acid levels.
B. Reduced cardiovascular functioning.
C. Greater incidence of chronic illness.
D. Reduced OTC availability.
C. Greater incidence of chronic illness.
During which phase of drug approval is a large population used and may include two groups, where one group receives medication and the other group does not?
Select one:
a. Phase I.
b. Phase III.
c. Phase IV.
d. Phase II.
b. Phase III.
The nurse is preparing to administer a controlled substance to a patient. Which schedule class is the most concern for potential abuse?
Select one:
a. C-VI.
b. C-V.
c. C-IV.
d. C-III.
d. C-III.
The nurse is discussing gene therapy in a continuing education class. Which is the best definition of eugenics?
Select one:
a. Developing new drugs based on gene therapy.
b. Using gene therapy to prevent disease.
c. Intentional selection, before birth, of genotypes that are considered more desirable than others.
d. The determination of genetic factors that influence a person's response to medications.
c. Intentional selection, before birth, of genotypes that are considered more desirable than others.
Which is the most important compound that transfers genes from parents to offspring?
Select one:
a. RNA.
b. DNA.
c. Chromatin.
d. Alleles.
b. DNA.
In order to prevent medication errors, which recommendation will help in prevention of confusing doses?
Select one:
a. Question every medication prescription.
b. Ask another nurse to read written orders
c. Ask the physician for verbal orders.
d. Avoid medical shorthand and abbreviations.
d. Avoid medical shorthand and abbreviations.
The student nurse is preparing medications for administration. Which factor would most likely contribute to making a mistake?
Select one:
a. Preparing the medication in a quiet area, with drug reference materials.
b. The careful review of the medication order by a pharmacist, prior to dispensing.
c. An anxious nurse asking to get to the medication cart for her medications.
d. An instructor asking questions, and allowing time to think or look up responses.
c. An anxious nurse asking to get to the medication cart for her medications.
The nurse is planning the education for a patient going home on medications. Which outcome criteria best represents a comprehensive outcome?
Select one:
a. The patient will demonstrate the proper administration of medications prior to discharge.
b. The patient will no longer have symptoms of their current disease.
c. The patient will take all medications as prescribed and not be readmitted to the hospital.
d. The patient will report any adverse reactions to their primary care provider.
a. The patient will demonstrate the proper administration of medications prior to discharge.
Which assessment data would the nurse consider essential prior to beginning an education session with their patient?
Select one:
a. The patient's need to know the information.
b. The patient's home status, and safety.
c. The patient's organization ability.
d. The patient's readiness to learn, and timing.
d. The patient's readiness to learn, and timing.
The nurse is discussing the use of over-the-counter (OTC) medications with a patient. Which statement by the nurse best indicates a reason for discussing what the patient is taking with a health care provider?
Select one:
a. "When OTC medications are taken there will be ongoing disease processes."
b. "All OTC medications can eliminate a disease, and should be used first."
c. "OTC medications can interact with the prescribed medications."
d. "The OTC medications are not safe enough to just take them."
c. "OTC medications can interact with the prescribed medications."
When discussing herbal products with a patient it is important for the nurse to include which information with them?
Select one:
a. These products are safe because they are all natural.
b. None of these products have been found to ever be unsafe.
c. These products are not required to prove efficacy or safety.
d. These products provide no additional positive effects and should be avoided.
c. These products are not required to prove efficacy or safety.
A patient with renal insufficiency is being changed from morphine sulfate to hydromorphone (Dilaudid) opiod analgesics for pain control. What is essential for the nurse to recognize as the patient changes medications?
Select one:
a. The dose of the new medication should be increased for the same effect.
b. The new medication is significantly more potent and requires a reduced dose.
c. These drugs are extremely similar and only the frequency will be increased.
d. Renal impairment will increase toxic metabolites with the new drug.
b. The new medication is significantly more potent and requires a reduced dose.
A patient is taking an opiod analgesic for acute pain rated 9/10 after abdominal surgery. Which adverse effect would the nurse need to respond to most rapidly?
Select one:
a. Patient complaint of constipation.
b. Increased urination to 60 mL per hour.
c. Heart rate elevation to 90 beats per minute.
d. Respiratory rate reduced to 8 breaths per minute.
d. Respiratory rate reduced to 8 breaths per minute.
A patient is being given a medication for analgezia. Which effect does the nurse recognize as the therapeutic effect?
Select one:
a. Reduced fever.
b. Reduced pain.
c. Reduced GI upset.
d. Reduced sleep.
b. Reduced pain.
A patient is being started on a buld-forming laxative for constipation. What is the best teaching by the nurse for this patient?
Select one:
a. Be close to a restroom immediately after taking this medication.
b. Reduce fluid intake after mixing this medication in milk only.
c. Take with a full cup of water and increase daily fluid intake.
d. Notify the physician immediately if bowel movements are not daily.
c. Take with a full cup of water and increase daily fluid intake.
A patient with severe diarrhea has been taking diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) a synthetic opiate agonist, with subtherapeutic anticholinergic. The nurse would recognize which signs indicating that too much is being taken?
Select one:
a. Increased bleeding, visual field obstruction, and hearing loss.
b. Weight loss, heat intolerance, abdominial distention, and tearing.
c. Slurred speech, bradycardia, and increased diarrhea.
d. Dry mouth, abdominal pain, tachycardia, and blurred vision.
d. Dry mouth, abdominal pain, tachycardia, and blurred vision.
A patient is being started on an antihistmine (Benadryl) for nausea. What is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge education?
Select one:
a. You may develop pink tinged urine.
b. Be sure to take the medication as often as you feel symptoms.
c. You may need to urinate more often.
d. You should avoid driving, or using heavy equipment.
d. You should avoid driving, or using heavy equipment.
A patient is on post-operative serotonin blocker (Ondansetron) for relief of nause and vomitting. Which assessment is the priority during it's use?
Select one:
a. Neurologic status especially pupilary reaction time.
b. Temperature, protein intake, and blood glucose.
c. Serum liver function, and blood pressure.
d. Intake and output with serum electrolytes.
d. Intake and output with serum electrolytes.
The nurse is preparing to apply silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) a topical antiinfective, for a patient with 2nd and 3rd degree burns. Which nursing action would be best to apply the cream to the burn surfaces?
Select one:
a. Use a sterile-gloved hand to spread over the entire effected skin surface.
b. Use cotton-tipped applicator, and tongue blade to provide even distribution.
c. Prepare surgical suite for any exposure of the burned skin.
d. Use gloved hand with multipuprose gloves, and apply to skin at the rim of the burn.
a. Use a sterile-gloved hand to spread over the entire effected skin surface.
A patient is on a topical antifungal miconazole (Monistat) for a vaginal yeast infection. The patient explains that they may be pregnant, what is the best response by the nurse?
Select one:
a. Tell them to not take the medication it will damage the baby.
b. Notify the prescriber, and assist with obtaining a urine sample.
c. Obtain blood for fungus, and pregnancy tests.
d. Explain that the risks are minimal and that they should take the medication
b. Notify the prescriber, and assist with obtaining a urine sample.
A school-aged child has been diagnosed with head lice, and is to receive lindane (Kwell) a chlorinated hydrocarbon shampoo. The nurse is preparing to shampoo the child's hair, what is the priority during the procedure?
Select one:
a. Keep all other persons away from the child in case the lice jump.
b. Apply the topical cream immediately after the shampoo is rinsed out for greatest effectiveness.
c. Use a shower only to clean the child so that the entire body can be rinsed of the lice.
d. Leave the product on the hair four minutes or as directed by the package, before rinsing.
d. Leave the product on the hair four minutes or as directed by the package, before rinsing.
Compliance
Implementation or fulfillment of a prescriber's or caregiver's prescribed course of treatment or therapeutic plan by a patient. (adherence)
Goals
Statements that are time specific and describe generally what is to be accomplished to address a specific nursing daignoses
Medication error
Any preventable adverse drug event involving involving inappropriate medication use by a patient or health care professional; it may not cause the patient harm
Noncompliance
an informed decision on the part of the patient not to adhere to or follow a therapeutic plan or suggestion
Nursing Process
An organizational framework for the practice of nursing. It encompasses all steps taken by the nurse in caring for a patient: assessment, nursing diagnoses, planning (with goals and outcome criteria), implementation of the plan (with patient teaching), and evaluation
Outcome Criteria
Descriptions of specific patient behaviors or responses that demonstrate meeting or or achievement of goals related to each nursing diagnosis; should be verifiable, framed in behavioral terms, measurable, and time specific. specific
Prescriber
Any health care professional licensed by the appropriate regulatory board to prescribe medications
Additive effects
Drug interactions in which the effect of a combination of two or more drugs with similar actions is equivalent to the sum of the individual effects of the same drugs given alone
Adverse Drug Event
any undesirable occurrence related to administering or failing to administer a prescribed medication
Adverse Drug Reaction
any unexpected, unintended, undesired, or excessive response to a medication given at therapeutic dosages (as opposed to overdose)
Adverse effects
a general term for any undesirable effects that are a direct response to one or more drugs.
Agonist
A drug that binds to and stimulates the activity of one or more receptors in the body
Allergic Reaction
An immunologic hypersensitivity reaction resulting form the unusual sensitivity of a patient to a particular medication; a type of adverse drug event
Antagonist
A drug that binds to and inhibits the activity of one or more receptors in the body
Antagonistic effects
Drug interactions in which the effect of a combination of two or more drugs is less than the sum of the individual effect of the same drugs given alone; it is usually caused by an antagonizing effect of one drug on another
Bioavailability
A measure of the extent of drug absorption for a given drug and route
Biotransformation
One or more biochemical reactions involving a parent drug; occurs mainly in the liver and produces a metabolite that is either inactive or active (metabolism)
Blood-Brain Barrier
The barrier system that restricts the passage of various chemicals and microscopic entities between the bloodstream and the central nervous system
Chemical Name
The name that describes the chemical composition and molecular structure of a drug
Contraindication
Any condition, especially one related to a disease state or other patient characteristic, including current or recent drug therapy, that renders a particular form of treatment improper or undesirable.
Cytochrome P-450
the general name for a large class of enzymes that play a significant role in drug metabolism
Dependence
a state in which there is a compulsive or chronic need, as for a drug
Dissolution
The process by which solid forms of drugs disintegrate in the GI tract and become soluble before being absorbed into the circulation
Drug
any chemical that affects the physiologic processes of a living organism
Drug actions
The cellular processes involved in the interaction between a drug and body cells
Drug effects
the physiologic reactions of the body to a drug; therapeutic or toxic and describe how the function of the body is affected as a whole by the drug; onset peak and duration
Drug-induced teratogenesis
the development of congenital anomalies or defects in the developing fetus caused by the toxic effects of drugs
Drug interaction
Alteration in the pharmacological activity of a given drug caused by the presence of one or more additional drugs; it is usually related to effects on the enzymes required for metabolism of the involved drugs
Duration of Action
the length of time the concentration of a drug in the blood or tissues is sufficient to elicit a response
Enzymes
protein molecules that catalyze one or more of a variety of biochemical reactions, including those related to the body's own physiologic processes as well as those related to drug metabolism
First-pass effect
the initial metabolism in the liver of a drug absorbed form the GI tract before the drug reaches systemic circulation though the bloodstream
generic name
the name given to a drug by the United States Adopted Name Council, non proprietary name; shorter and simpler than the chemical name and is not protected by trade mark
Half-life
in pharmacokinetics, the time required for half of an administered dose of drug to be eliminated by the body, or the time it takes for the blood level of a drug to be reduced by 50%
Idiosyncratic Reaction
an abnormal and unexpected response to a medication, other than an allergic reaction, that is peculiar to an individual patient
Incompatability
the characteristic that causes two parenteral drugs or solutions to undergo a reaction when mixed or given to an individual patient
Intraarticular
within a joint
Intrathecal
within a sheath
Medication error
Any preventable adverse drug event involving inappropriate medication use by a patient or health care professional; it may or may not cause patient harm
Medication use Process
the prescribing, dispensing, and administering of medications, and the monitoring of their effects
Metabolite
- A chemical form of a drug that is the product of one or more biochemical (metabolic) reactions involving the parent drug. Active metabolites are those that have pharmacologic activity of their own, even if the parent drug is inactive (see prodrug. Inactive metabolites lack pharmacologic activity and are simply drug waste products awaiting excretion from the body (e.g., via the urinary, gastrointestinal, or respiratory tract).
Onset of action
the time required for a drug to elicit a therapeutic response after dosing
Parent drug
the chemcial form of a drug thatis administered before it is metabolized by the body's biochemical reactions into its active or inactive metabolites. A parent drug thatis not pharmacologically active itself is called a produg. A prodrug is then metabolized to pharmacologically active metabolites. (pg. 27)
Peak effect
the time required for a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response in the body
Peak level
the maximum concentration of a drug in the body after administration, usually measured in a blood sample for therapeutic drug monitoring
Pharmaceutics
the science of preparing and dispensing drugs, including dosage form design
Pharmacodynamics
the study of the biochemical and physiologic interactions of drugs at their sites of activity. It examines the physicochemical properties of drugs and their pharmacologic interactions with body receptors.
Pharmacogenetics
the study of the influence of genetic factors on drug response, including the nature of genetic aberrations that result in the absence, overabundance, or insufficiency of drug-metabolizing enzymes (also called pharmacogenomics)
Pharmacognosy
the study of drugs that are obtained from natural plant and animal sources
Pharmacokinetics
The rate of drug distribution among various body compartments after a drug has entered the body. It includes the phases of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs.
Pharmacology
the broadest term for the study or science of drugs
Pharmacotherapeutics
The treatment of pathologic conditions through the use of drugs
Prodrug
an inactive drug dosage form that is converted to an active metabolite by various biochemical reactions once it is inside the body
Receptor
A molecular structure within or on the outer surface of a cell. Receptors bind specific sunstances. (e.g. drug molecules), and one or more corresponding cellular effects. (drug action) occurs as a result of this drug-receptor interaction.
Steady state
The physiologic state in which the amount of drug removed via elimination is equal to the amount of drug absorbed with each dose.
substrates
substances on which an enzyme acts
Synergistic Effects
drug interactions in which the effect of a combination of two or more drugs with similar actions is greater than the sum of the individual effects of the same drugs given alone (1+1>2)
Therapeutic Drug Monitoring
The process of measuring drug peak and trough levels to gauge the level of a patient's drug exposure and allow adjustment of dosages with the goals of maximizing therapeutic effects and minimizing toxicity.
Therapeutic Effect
The desired or intended effect of a particular medication.
Therapeutic index
the ratio between the toxic and therapeutic concentrations of a drug
Tolerance
The reduced effectiveness a drug has after repeated use.
Toxic
poisonous
Toxicity
the condition of producing adverse bodily effects due to poisonous qualities
Toxicology
the study of poisons, including toxic drug effects, and applicable treatments
Trade Name
The commercial name given to a drug product by its manufacturer; proprietary name
Trough Level
The lowest concentration of drug reached in the body after it falls from its peak level, usually measured in a blood sample for therapeutic drug monitoring.
Active Transport
The active (energy-requiring) movement of a substance between different tissues via bio molecular pumping mechanisms contained within a cell membranes
Diffusion
The passive movement of a substance between different tissues from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration
Elderly
Pertaining o a person who is 65 years of age or older
Neonate
Pertaining to a person younger than 1 month of age, newborn infant
Nomogram
A graphic tool for estimating drug dosages using various body measurements
Pediatric
Pertaining to a person who is 12 years of age or younger
Polypharmacy
the use of many different drugs concurrently in treating a patient, who often has several health problems
bias
Any systematic error in a measurement process, avoid by using blind study design
Black box warning
A type of warning that appears in a drug's prescribing information, required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration alerting prescribers of serious adverse events that have occurred with the given drug
Blinded Investigational Drug Study
A research design in which the subjects are purposely unaware of whether the substance they are administered is the drug under study or a placebo. This method serves to eliminate bias on the part of research subjects in reporting their body's responses to investigational drugs
Controlled Substances
drugs that produce tolerance and dependence and have potential for abuse or addiction
Double-blind investigational drug study
A research design in which both the investigator(s) and the subjects are purposely unaware of whether the substance administered to a given subject is the drug under study or a placebo. This method eliminates bias on the part of both the investigator and the subject
Drug polymorphism
Variation in response to a drug because of a patient's age, gender, size, and/or body composition
Expedited drug approval
Acceleration of the usual investigational new drug approval process by the U.S. FDA and pharmaceutical companies, usually for drugs used to treat life-threatening diseases
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA)
An act that protects health insurance coverage for workers and their families when they change jobs, protects patient information
Informed consent
a written agreement to participate in a study made by an adult who has been informed of all the risks that participation may entail
Investigational new drug (IND)
A drug not approved for marketing by the FDA but available for use in experiments to determine its safety and efficacy; also, the actual name of the category of application that the drug manufacturer submits to the FDA to obtain permission for human (clinical) studies following successful completion of animal (preclinical) studies
Investigational new drug application
The type of application that a drug manufacturer submits to the FDA following successful completion of required human research studies
Legend drugs
prescription drugs
Narcotic
a legal term established under the Harrison Antinarcotic Act of 1914. It originally applied to drugs that produced insensibility or stupor, especially the opioids. The term is currently used in clinical settings to refer to any medically administered controlled substance and in legal settings to refer to any illicit or "street' drug
Orphan drugs
A special category of drugs that have been identified to help treat patients with rare disease
Over-the-Counter Drugs
Drugs available to consumers without a prescription
Placebo
An inactive substance that is not a drug but is formulated to resemble a drug for research purposes
Acquired Disease
Any disease triggered by external factors and not directly caused by a person's genes
Alleles
The two or more alternative forms of a gene that can occupy a specific locus on a chromosome
Chromatin
a collective term for all of the chromosomal material within a given cell
Chromosomes
Structure in the nuclei of cells that contain linear threads of DNA which transmits genetic information, and are associated with RNA molecules and synthesis of protein molecules
Gene Therapy
New therapeutic technologies that directly target human genes in the treatment or prevention of illness
Genetic disease
Any disorder caused directly by fa genetic mechanism
Genetic material
DNA or RNA molecules or portions thereof
Gene
The biologic unit of heredity; a segment of DNA molecule that contains all of the molecular information required for the synthesis of a biologic product such as an RNA molecule or an amino acid chain
Genetic Polymorphisms (PMs)
Allele variants that occur in the chromosomes of 1% or more of the general population
Genetic Predisposition
the presence of certain factors in a person's genetic makeup, or genome, that increase the individual's likelihood of eventually developing one or more diseases
Genetics
The study of the structure, function, and inheritance of genes
Genome
the complete instructions for making an organism, containing all the genetic material in its chromosomes
Genomics
The study of the structure and function of the genome, including DNA sequencing, mapping, and expression, and the way genes and their products work in both health and disease
Genotype
the particular alleles present at a given site on the chromosomes of an organism that determine a specific genetic trait for that organism
Heredity
the characteristics and qualities that are genetically passed form one generation to the next through reproduction
Human Genome Project (HGP)
a scientific project of the US Department of Energy and National Institutes of Health to describe in detail the entire genome of a human being
Inherited Disease
Genetic diseases that result from defective alleles passed form parent to offspring
Nucleic Acid
Molecules of DNA or RNA in the nucleus of every cell; DNA makes up the chromosomes and encodes the genes
Personalized Medicine
The use of tools such as molecular and genetic characterizations of both disease processes and the patient for the customization of drug therapy
pharmacogenetics
a general term for the study of the genetic basis for variations in the body's response to drugs, with a focus on variations related to a single gene
Pharmacogenomics
a branch of pharmacogenetics that involves the survey of the entire genome to detect multigenic (multiple-gene) determinants of drug response
phenotype
The expression in the body of a genetic trait that results from a person's particular genotype for that trait
Proteome
The entire set of proteins produced form the information encoded in an organism's genome
Proteomics
the detailed study of the proteome, including all biologic actions of proteins
Recombinant DNA (rDNA)
DNA molecules that have been artificially synthesized or modified in a laboratory setting
Adverse drug event
any undesirable occurrence related to administering or failing to administer a prescribed medication
Adverse drug reaction
any unexpected, unintended, undesired, or excessive response to a medication given at therapeutic dosages (as opposed to overdose)
allergic reaction
An immunologic hypersensitivity reaction resulting from the unusual sensitivity of a patient to a particular medication; a type of adverse drug event.
idiosyncratic reaction
an abnormal and unexpected response to a medication, other than an allergic reaction, that is peculiar to an individual patient.
Medical error
A broad term commonly used to refer to any error in any phase of clinical patient care that causes or has the potential to cause patient harm.
Medication error
Any preventable adverse drug event involving inappropriate medication use by a patient or health care professional; it may or may not cause the patient harm.
Medication Reconciliation
A procedure implemented by health care providers to maintain an accurate and up-to-date list of medications for all patients between all phases of health care delivery.
Affective Domain
the most intangible component of the learning process. Affective behavior is conduct that expresses feelings, needs, beliefs, values, and opinions
Cognitive Domain
the "thinking" domain, includes six intellectual abilities and thinking processes beginning with knowing, comprehending, and applying to analysis, synthesis, and evaluation
Learning
the acquisition of knowledge or skill
Psychomotor domain
the domain involved in the learning of a new procedure or skill; often called the doing domain
Teaching
A system of directed and deliberate actions intended to induce learning
Alternative medicine
herbal medicine, chiropractic, acupuncture, reflexology, and any other therapies traditionally not emphasized in Western medical schools but popular with many patients
Complementary medicine
alternative medicine when used simultaneously with, rather than instead of, standard Western medicine (using conventional medicine and alternative medicine at the same time)
Conventional medicine
The practice of medicine as taught in Western medical schools.
Dietary supplement
any product that is taken by mouth that can contain a dietary ingredient and is also labeled as a dietary supplement
Herbal medicine
The practice of using herbs to heal
herbs
Plant components that are valued for their savory, aromatic, or medicinal qualities
latrogenic effects
Unintentional adverse effects that are caused by the actions of a prescriber or health care professional or by specific treatment. p. 90
legend drugs
Medications that are not legally available without a prescription from a prescriber (e.g., physician, nurse practitioner, physician assistant; also called prescription drugs).
Phytochemicals
The pharmacologically active ingredient in herbal remedies
Adjuvant analgesic drugs
drugs that are added as a second drug for combined therapy with a primary drug and may have additive or independent analgesic properties, or both
Agonist
A substance that binds to a receptor and causes a response
Agonists-Antagonists
substances that bind to receptor and cause a partial response that is not as strong as that caused by an agonist
Analgesic ceiling effect
What occurs when a given pain drug no longer effectively controls a patient's pain despite the administration of the highest safe dosages.
analgesics
an agent that relieves pain without causing unconsciousness.
Antagonist
drug which blocks the activity of neurotransmitters
Breakthrough pain
pain that occurs between doses of pain medication
cancer pain
Pain resulting from any of a variety of causes related to cancer and/or the metastasis of cancer.
central pain
Pain resulting from any disorder that causes central nervous system damage.
chronic pain
Pain that lasts longer than anticipated (usually over 6 months), may not have an identifiable cause, and may lead to great personal suffering. Chronic pain may be noncancerous (nonmalignant) or cancerous.
Deep pain
pain that occurs in tissues below skin level; opposite of superficial pain
Gate Theory
The most common and well-described theory of pain transmission and pain relief. It uses a gate model to explain how impulses from damaged tissues are sensed in the brain
Neuropathic pain
Pain that results from an injury to or abnormal functioning of peripheral nerves or the central nervous system
nociception
processing of pain signals in the brain that gives rise to the feeling of pain
nociceptors
A subclass of sensory nerves (A and C fibers) that transmit pain signals to the central nervous system from other body parts.
Nonopioid analgesics
analgesics that are not classified as opioids
Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
a large, chemically diverse group of drugs that are analgesics and also possess antiinflammatory and antipyretic activity but are not steroids
Opioid analgesics
Synthetic drugs that bind to opiate receptors to relieve pain but are not themselves derived from the opium plant
Opioid naive
describes patients who are receiving opioid analgesics for the first time and who therefore are not accustomed to their effects.
Opioid tolerance
a normal physiologic condition that results from long-term opioid use, in which large doses of opioids are required to maintain the same level of analgesia and in which abrupt discontinuation of hte drug results in withdrawl symptoms.
Opioid tolerant
The opposite of opioid naive; describes patients who have been receiving opioid analgesics (legally or otherwise) for a period of time (1 week or longer) and who are therefore at greater risk of opioid withdrawal syndrome upon sudden discontinuation of opioid use.
Opioid withdrawal
the signs and symptoms associated with abstinence from or withdrawal of an opioid analgesic when the body has become physically dependent on the substance
Pain
an unpleasant sensory emotion experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage
Pain threshold
the level of stimulus that results in the sensation of pain
partial agonist
a drug that binds to a receptor and causes an activation response that is less than that caused by a full agonist
phantom pain
pain experienced in the area of a body part that has been surgically or traumatically removed
physical dependence
A state of adaptation that is manifested by a drug class specific withdrawal syndrome that can be produced by abrupt cessation, rapid dose reduction, decreasing blood level or the drug, and/or administration of an antagonist.
Psychologic dependence
a state of mind in which a person believes that they ae unable to maintain optimal performance without having taken the drug
can range in severity from mild desire to compulsive obsession
referred pain
pain occurring in an area away form the organ of origin
somatic pain
pain that originates form skeletal muscles, ligaments or joints
special pain situations
The general term for pain control situations that are complex and whose treatment typically involves multiple medications, various health care personnel, and nonpharmacologic therapeutic modalities
superficial pain
Pain that originates from the skin or mucous membranes opposite of deep pain
tolerance
the diminishing effect with regular use of the same dose of a drug, requiring the user to take larger and larger doses before experiencing the drug's effect
vascular pain
pain that results form a pathology of the vascular or perivascular tissues
visceral pain
pain that originates form organs or smooth muscles
world health organization
an international agency sponsored by the United Nations that complies statistics and information on disease, publishes health information, investigates serious global health problems
Antidiarrheal Drugs
drugs that counter or combat diarrhea
Constipation
decrease in the frequency of bowel movements, difficulty in passing stools, and/or hard dry stools
Diarrhea
The abnormally frequent passage of loose stools
Irritable Bowel syndrome (IBS)
A recurring condition of the intestinal tract characterized by bloating, flatulence, and often periods of diarrhea that alternate with periods of constipation.
Laxatives
Promote the passage of stool. Types of laxatives:stool softener, cathartics, fiber, lubricants, and stimulants.
Antiemetic drugs
drugs given to relieve nausea and vomiting
Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
The area of the brain that is involved in the sensation of nausea and the action of vomitting
Emesis
the forcible emptying or expulsion of gastric and occasionally intestinal contents through the mouth (vomitting)
Nausea
sensation often leading to the urge to vomit
Vomiting center
the area of the brain that is involved in stimulating the physiologic events that lead to nausea and vomitting
Acne Vulgaris
a chronic inflammatory disease characterized by pustular eruptions of the skin caused by an overproduction of sebum
Actinic keratosis
A slowly developing, localized thickening of the outer layers of the skin resulting form long-term, prolonged exposure to the sun
Atopic dermatitis
a chronic skin inflammation seen in patients with hereditary susceptibility to pruritus
Basal Cell Carcinoma
The most common form of skin cancer; it arises from epidermal cells known as basal cells and is rarely metastatic
Carbuncles
Necrotizing infections of skin and subcutaneous tissue caused by multiple furuncles (boils); usually caused by Staph. aureus.
cellulitis
a diffuse, acute infection and inflammation of the connective tissue found in the skin.
Dermatitis
Inflammation of the skin.
dermatophytes
Any of common groups of fungi that infect skin, hair, and nails; most commonly from microsporum, epidermophyton, trichophyton
dermatosis
the general term for any abnormal skin condition
Dermis
the layer of the skin just below the epidermis, consisting of papillary and reticular layers and containing blood and lymphatic vessels, nerves and nerve endings, glands, and hair follicles
Eczema
a pruritic, papulovesicular dermatitis occurring as a reaction to many endogenous and exogenous agents, and characterized by erythema, edema, and an inflammatory infiltrate of the dermis accompanied by oozing, crusting, and scaling
Epidermis
the superficial, avascular layers of the skin, made up of an outer dead, cornified portion and a deeper living, cellular portion
Folliculitis
Inflammation of a follicle, usually a hair follicle; defined as any sac or pouch-like cavity
Furuncles
Painful skin nodules caused by Staphylococcus organisms that enter the skin through the hair follicles (boil)
Impetigo
A pus-generating, contagious superficial skin infection, usually caused by staphylococci or streptococci; generally occurs on the face and is most commonly seen in children
Papules
small, circumscribed, superficial, solid elevations of the skin that are usually pink and less than 0.5 to 1 cm in diameter
Pediculosis
an infestation with lice of the family Pediculidae
Pruritus
an unpleasant cutaneous sensation that provokes the desire to rub or scratch the skin to obtain relief
Psoriasis
a common, chronic squamous cell dermatosis with polygenetc inheritance and a fluctuating pattern of recurrence and remission
Pustules
visible collections of pus within or beneath the epidermis
Scabies
a contagious disease caused by a parasite (Mite) that invades the skin, causing an intense itch
Tinea
A fungal skin disease caused by a deratophyte and characterized by itching, scaling, and, sometimes, painful lesions; general term for an infection with any of various dermatophytes that occur at several sites (ringworm)
Topical Antimicrobials
Substances applied to any surface that either kill microorganisms or inhibit their growth replication
Vesicles
small sacs containing liquid

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