MFT Practice Set Exam Questions
1. A young woman comes to therapy alone. She has been dating a man for almost a year
and they recently began having sexual relations. Although
the woman is sexually aroused during intercourse, she is unable to achieve orgasm through
either intercourse or clitoral stimulation. The woman says that, while this is her first
experience with intercourse, she has masturbated to orgasm several times. In treating the
woman a therapist using Masters and Johnson's approach to sex therapy is most likely to
recommend that the woman use which of the following techniques?
Select one:
a. The bridge technique
b. The stop-start technique c. Sensate focus
d. The squeeze technique: Although many questions that ask you to choose an intervention are
"best answer" questions, this is a "one-correct-answer" question because Masters and Johnson
suggest specific procedures for treating each sexual dysfunction.Answer C is correct: In treating
secondary Orgasmic Disorder, Masters and Johnson emphasize the sexual value system and
recommend giving the couple permission to be sexual, using sensate focus with constant
communi- cation of likes and dislikes to the partner, genital play, penile containment without
thrusting, and, finally, coitus.Answer A is incorrect: Be careful: this is associated with Kaplan's
treatment for secondary Orgasmic Disorder.Answer B is incorrect: This is associated with
Kaplan's treatment for Premature Ejaculation.Answer D is incorrect: This technique is associated
with Masters and Johnson, but is used to treat male sexual dysfunction, such as Premature
Ejaculation.
The correct answer is: Sensate focus
2. Based on the initial evaluation of a 15-year-old boy, a clinician believes the nature and
number of his symptoms suggest a DSM-5 diagnosis of Attention-Deficit or Hyperactivity
Disorder, predominantly inattentive pre- sentation. Before assigning the diagnosis, the
clinician will want to confirm that some symptoms were present before the boy was
years of age and that he exhibits them in at least settings.
Select one:
a. 7; 2 b. 12; 2 c. 6; 3
d. 10; 3: Answer B is correct: For a diagnosis of ADHD, the DSM-5 requires that
"several inattentive or hyperactive-impulsive symptoms were present prior to age
12" (p. 60) and that symptoms are present in at least two settings.
Answer A is incorrect: This answer describes the DSM-IV-TR requirements for the diagnosis.
The correct answer is: 12; 2
3. Bipolar I Disorder is distinguished from Bipolar II Disorder by the presence of which kind
of episode?
Select one:
a. Manic episode
b. Psychotic episode c. Mixed episode
d. Depressed episode: This is another straightforward recall question about di- agnosis.Answer
A is correct: The presence of a manic episode rules out Bipolar II Disorder. The criteria for
diagnosing Bipolar I Disorder include one or more manic episodes.Answer B is incorrect: With
psychotic features is a specifier for Bipolar I Disorder, but psychotic episodes are not one of the
types of episodes associated with the Bipolar Disorders.
The correct answer is: Manic episode
4. Charles and Martha bring their two children to therapy. The parents are concerned with
how disrespectful the youngest child is to the mother. Whenever she tries to discipline him,
he engages in name-calling and has threatened violence. The therapist asks the mother to
recall a recent event that occurred and notes that the husband rolls his eyes and looks away
as she begins to speak. When the therapist calls attention to the husband's re- sponse, the
youngest child immediately lashes out at his mother. A structural therapist would view this
interaction as:
Select one:
a. Conflict-detouring.
b. Reciprocal inhibition. c. Equifinality.